FPGEE Elective courses

 

Pharmacy : Caduceus symbol Stock Photo

 

FPGEE Intensive Review Course

Key to pass the FPGEE examination the first time. Study at your own pace, no schedules to keep and no stress. Guaranteed FPGEE success with an innovative, self paced online FPGEE Intensive review modules. The modules are easy to understand and study. Key concepts, terms  and calculations are well explained in a step-by-step manner. This Intensive review course is also ideal for all foreign pharmacists/graduates/adults no matter how long it’s been since you graduated. When you complete the course you will be confident in your ability to take the FPGEE examination. Also, the FPGEE intensive review course is available internationally. Foreign pharmacists from outside the USA are welcome to participate in the course.

Comprehensive FPGEE review course is  developed exclusively for you to succeed. Led by RPh/MS Ph/Pharmacist Educators who have highly experienced in formal teaching, hospital, community, and clinical practice. Choose among the FPGEE elective courses you want to sign up for. Once you sign up, you can get started right away.

The tutoring program is self-paced and allows you to progress according to your own schedule. The advantage is that our instructors provide an online tutorial in order to improve your understanding. You can prepare and list down all your questions, ask unlimited questions, and you have the opportunity to interact with the instructor.

The Pharmacy tutoring program is organized in the best possible presentation to maximize students /examinees learning. It is an affordable, practical, and effective tool of learning. Key to pass the exam in just one attempt!

 Available:

FPGEE Elective courses: (According to the revised FPGEE Blue Print Curriculum for 2016)

1. FPGEE Course e-Manual Success Package: Cost $250

  • It covers the four sections of the FPGEE latest curriculum
  • Receive review modules of the four sections of the FPGEE
  • Over 1000 FPGEE Practice questions and answers
  • FPGEE Pharmaceutical, Pharmacy Management, Pharmacokinetic Calculations
  • FPGEE Practice Self Assessments with answer key for each topic

Success Package: FPGEE Review course

 FPGEE Content areas  Duration of self paced review  Live Chat tutorial on Skype or via Email is depending on participant’s availability
Introduction 1 week 1 hour
Biomedical Sciences 2 weeks 1 hour
Pharmaceutical Sciences 2 weeks 2 hours
Clinical Sciences 4 weeks 2 hours
Pharmacy Management 1 weeks 1 hour
Summary 1 week 1 hour
Practice questions and answers 1 week 1 hour
Practice exercises Bonus Bonus

Total: 12 weeks (Add fpgee_lecturer and receive the tutorial via live chatting on Skype or Email)

  • Success Package e-Course modules accompany the program.
  • Live course is led by expert teachers who deliver comprehensive instruction via online live chat.
  • Instructors will explain the lessons and much more as to what you can do to help you study more effectively and time efficiently
  • The instructor in charge will create you a study pattern for your convenience
  • We’ll send the complete instructions along with the complete  FPGEE course modules after making a purchase.

 Bonus:

  • TOEFL Tips for the R, L, S, and W sections (for FPGEC Certification)
  • Introduction to NAPLEX and NAPLEX course practice questions and answers
  • fpgee_lecturer is 24/7 online on Skype, participants can send questions to Fpgee Lecturer anytime
Structure of the FPGEE

The 250 questions on the FPGEE are divided among four content areas:

  • Basic biomedical sciences – 10%
  • Pharmaceutical Sciences – 33%
  • Social, behavioral, administrative pharmacy sciences – 22%
  • Clinical sciences – 35%

2. NAPLEX course notes with practice questions and answers fee = $65

Send $65 and put NAPLEX course  notes on the subject title via Paypal or request an invoice by emailing fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com

3. FPGEE Success Package Course Program + Supporting letter documents= $650

A support letter will be given for fpgee participants/students who need additional information for visa application. It is also useful for those participants who don’t have families and relatives in the USA. Fpgee students can stay in the address location stated in the supporting letter or they can stay with their family and relatives in the USA once they get here.

Email fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com if interested in this package or chat fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com on Skype

Fpgee students who are seriously interested in this package can call 1-409-5272733 or email fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com for more info.

 

4.  FPGEE 750 Practice questions and answers + FPGEE Calculations: $ 125

Additional Feature:

Free TOEFL Notes & Tips for R, L, S, and W

Introduction to NAPLEX notes

 

 

5. FPGEE Quick Study Notes and 500 Practice questions and answers with free tutorial via Email = $ 185

Additional Feature:

Free TOEFL Notes & Tips for R, L, S, and W

Introduction to NAPLEX notes

 

 

 

6. TOEFL IBT course for “Independent Writing Task II”

$ 60

The Independent Writing Task:

  • You’ll receive 15 questions of Independent Writing Task.
  • We’ll explain how essays are scored and the essay-writing tips.
  • We’ll evaluate/rate your essay.
  • You’ll have the opportunity to interact with the TOEFL lecturer via Live chatting on Skype.

a. The instructor will judge, evaluate the quality of your writing as well as edit the grammar.

b. The instructor will use the following checklist for Independent essay when scoring your essay.

Checklist for Independent Essay:

  • The essay answers the topic question
  • The point of view or position is clear
  • The essay is direct and well-organized
  • The sentences are logically connected
  • Details and examples support the main idea
  • The writer expresses complete thoughts
  • The meaning is easy to comprehend
  • A wide range of vocabulary is used
  • Various types of sentences are included
  • Errors in grammar and idioms are minor
  • The essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

c. The instructor will assign writing tasks as homework

d. The instructor will provide counseling and encouragement as part of the class routine

e. The instructor will provide essay-writing tips as well as explain how essays are scored

Email fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com (and put TOEFL Independent Task Course on the Subject line) to receive a Paypal Invoice Sheet.

 

7. TOEFL IBT Writing Course Program-SUCCESS Package $135

Receive the following high quality learning service & materials

 

Writing Course:

Writing Integrated Task I

  • 10 activities applying the proper format-templates for writing task I essay
    for writing integrated task I essay (you must create a drop box account in order to receive the files) (Creating a drop box is very easy and simple)
  • 1 final / actual exam via live chat on Skype

Writing Independent Task II

  • You’ll receive 10 questions of Independent Writing Task.
  • We’ll explain how essays are scored and the essay-writing tips.
  • We’ll evaluate/rate your essay.
  • You’ll have the opportunity to interact with the TOEFL lecturer via Live chatting on Skype.

a. The instructor will judge, evaluate the quality of your writing as well as edit the grammar.

b. The instructor will use the following checklist for Independent essay when scoring your essay.

Checklist for Independent Essay:

  • The essay answers the topic question
  • The point of view or position is clear
  • The essay is direct and well-organized
  • The sentences are logically connected
  • Details and examples support the main idea
  • The writer expresses complete thoughts
  • The meaning is easy to comprehend
  • A wide range of vocabulary is used
  • Various types of sentences are included
  • Errors in grammar and idioms are minor
  • The essay is within a range of 300-350 words.

c. The instructor will assign writing tasks as homework

d. The instructor will provide counseling and encouragement as part of the class routine

e. The instructor will provide essay-writing tips as well as explain how essays are scored

 

Bonus:

Unlimited-Free access to speaking and writing tutorial service

 

 

 

 

 

Dear FPGEE Candidates/Future US Pharmacists

Don’t stress yourself out, don’t waste your time, and don’t waste your FPGEE fee!

Sign up for our FPGEE elective courses because we guarantee you SUCCESS on your FPGEE examination.

 

 

Good luck,

FPGEE / Pharma educator

 

 

 

FPGEE + TOEFL IBT = FPGEC Certification

1500 hours + NAPLEX & MJPE = US RPh!

 

FPGEE revised / new format type of questions  (From FPGEE blue print- trademark of NABP) The questions were answered by one of our expert FPGEE (RPh) Instructors.

1. Constructed-Response Question Format

Griseofulvin oral suspension contains 125 mg/5 mL. A physician prescribed 250 mg bid for 2 weeks for a patient. How many milliliters of griseofulvin should be dispensed in order to fill this prescription?

(Answer must be numeric; round the final answer to the nearest WHOLE number).

Solution:

Set up a simple ratio and proportion

125 mg / 5 ml = 250 mg / X

250 mg ( 5 ml ) / 125 mg ( X)

1250 mg / ml = 125 mg X

Divide both sides by 125 mg in order to cancel mg

X = 10 ml

You’re not done yet, analyze the statement / question given.

10 ml must be multiplied by 2 (BID = two times) X 14  (2 weeks)= 280 ml

 

2. Ordered-Response Question Format

Rank the following topical corticosteroids from highest to lowest potency.

(ALL options must be used.)

Left-click the mouse to highlight, drag, and order the answer options. 

Unordered Options Ordered Response

Fluocinonide 0.05%

Hydrocortisone acetate 1%

Halobetasol propionate 0.05%

Mometasone furoate 0.1%

Okay let’s answer this,

Okay all them should be divided by 100 (because they are given in percentage) so we can rank them from highest to lowest potenct

1. Fluocinonide 0.05% —–> 0.05 / 100 = 0.0005

 2. Hydrocortisone acetate 1%——-> 1 /100 = 0.01

 3. Halobetasol propionate 0.05%—–> 0.05 /100 = 0.0005

 4. Mometasone furoate 0.1% ——> 0.1 / 100 = 0.001

Answer from highest to lowest : 2>4>>3>1

It is documented that Halobetasol pripionate is more potent than flucinonide , take note of that!

 

3. Multiple-Choice Question Format

Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients?

A. Pneumococcal polysaccharide

B. Varicella

C. Meningococcal conjugate

D. Subcutaneous influenza

 Answer: B—Varicella is an example of a live / attenuated vaccine, Live vaccines are CI in immunocompromised pxs.

4. Multiple-Response Question Format

What counseling information should a pharmacist provide to a patient taking oral tacrolimus?

(Select ALL that apply.)

A. Avoid live virus vaccinations-correct

B. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice-correct

C.If a dose is missed, double up on the next dose-doesn’t apply

 Tacrolimus = MISSED DOSE: If you miss a dose, take it as soon as you remember. If it is near the time of the next dose, skip the missed dose and resume your usual dosing schedule. Do not double the dose to catch up.

D. Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication-correct

E. Medication levels need to be monitored-correct

Therefore the answer is C.

 

 Practice Questions: (Constructed – Response Question)

Constructed-Response question

 

1. A Person is prescribed drug X 175mg/ml over 3 hour IV infusion. Drug X is to be diluted 0.9mg/ml. What should infusion rate be in ml/hr? Answer must be in Whole Number)

2. A drug has a volume of distribution of 0.5ml/kg of body weight and an elimination rate of 0.231 per hour. A blouse dose of 2mg/kg of body weight is followed with a constant IV infusion of 0.15mg/kg of body weight per hour. The anticipated steady state would be?

(Sign up for FPGEE Course in order to receive a tutorial)

 

Multiple Response Question Format (Choices are A-D)

  1. An enzyme that cleaves DNA at a specific site is called? 
  2. restriction endogenous
  3. restrictive ribonuclease
  4. tryspin
  5. none of the above
  1. What is the common storage condition for most biotechnology products after reconstitution?
  1. room temperature
  2. cool place
  3. warm place
  4. no excessive heat
  5. in freezer
  1. An example of a cytokine is:
  1. IL
  2. insulin
  3. gonadotropin
  4. thyroxine
  5. none of the above
  1. The physician prescribed lovastatin to the patient that has high cholesterol level. The patient asked the pharmacist about the mechanism of action of the drug before taking it. The pharmacist explained to him that lovastatin acts by blocking the subsubstrate-binding site of the enzyme HMG Co-A reductase which catalyzes the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis.
  1. addition
  2. synergism
  3. noncompetitive antagonism
  4. competitive antagonism
  5. potentiation
  1. Which of the following statements about drug receptor is true?
  1. It mediates the nonspecific action of volatile anesthetics.
  2. Its expression is induced only by exogenously added drugs.
  3. It can bind endogenous ligand to produce physiological activity.
  4. It mediates the cathartic activity of magnesium citrate.
  5. Down-regulation of receptor level can lead to sensitization of the target cell to the receptor agonist.

6. A 45 year old man with chronic lymphocytic leukemia undergoing therapy mentioned to his pharmacist that his doctor that his doctors had prescribed rituximab for treating his cancer. The patient asked what rituximab is and how it works. His pharmacist explained to him that rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that

  1. inhibits DNA synthesis
  2. blocks cell cycle progression
  3. binds to cell surface molecules
  4. boosts the immune response
  1. Which of the following salts will most likely yield an aqueous solution with a pH <7?
  1. sodium salicylates
  2. potassium chloride
  3. magnesium sulfate
  4. potassium penicillin
  5. atropine sulfate
  1. All of the following medicinal agents are classified as natural products except:
  1. atropine
  2. diazepam
  3. digitoxin
  4. penicillin
  5. morphine
  1. Which of the following drugs is/are classified as antimetabolites?
  1. 5-FU (fluorouracil)
  2. Sulfisoxazole
  3. Digoxin
  4. Both a and b
  5. Both c and d
  1. All of the following adverse effects are manifestations of cholinergic agonists except:
  1. bradycardia
  2. bronchocontriction
  3. xerostomia
  4. lacrimation
  5. myopic accommodation
  1. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents can cause muscarinic responses such as bradycardia and increased glandular secretions?
  1. tubocuratine
  2. succinylcholine
  3. pancuronium
  4. decamethonium
  5. gallamine
  1. The pharmacologic profile of carvedilol is same as:
  1. esmolol
  2. labetalol
  3. metoprolol
  4. nadolol
  5. timolol
  1. Adverse reactions of atropine include all of the following except:
  1. photophobia
  2. dry mouth
  3. sedation
  4. diarrhea
  5. tachycardia
  1. Which of the following statements regarding drug metabolism is true?
  1. Generally, a single metabolite is excreted for each drug administered.
  2. Often, a drug may undergo a phase II reaction followed by a phase I reaction.
  3. Drug-metabolizing enzymes are found only in the liver.
  4. All metabolites are less active pharmacologically than their parent drugs
  5. Phase I metabolites more likely are able to cross cellular membranes than phase II metabolites.
  1. Which of the following statements regarding pharmacogenetics is not true?
  1. Single nucleotide polymorphism in a promoter region can result in a decreased production of a target protein.
  2. It is crucial that false positives for safety-based assays be kept for at a minimum.
  3. The area of pharmacogenetics focuses primarily on the genetic variations that affect drug efficacy and safety.
  4. The effects of SNPs vary based upon the type and location of the variation.
  5. Genetic variation occurs whenever there is a change in the DNA nucleotide base pair sequence.
  1. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose/toxicity?
  1. N-acetyl-L-cysteine
  2. KCl
  3. Fe
  4. CaCl
  1. The antidote responsible for beta blocker toxicity is?
  1. glucagon
  2. epinephrine
  3. NaHCO3
  4. Both a and b
  5. Both b and c
  1. Antidote for organophosphate is?
  1. Dimecaprol
  2. Atropine
  3. Pralidoxime
  4. Both a and b
  5. Both b and c
  1. The antidote for INH is?
  1. naloxone
  2. pyridoxine
  3. NaHCO3
  4. Both b and c
  5. None of the above
  1. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of:
  1. Renal excretion rate
  2. GFR (glomerular filtration rate)
  3. Active renal secretion
  4. Passive renal absorption
  5. Drug metabolism rate
  1. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the:
  1. concentration of the drug at the receptor site.
  2. Elimination half-life (t1/2) of the drug.
  3. Onset time of the drug after oral administration.
  4. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC) of the drug in plasma.
  5. Minimum effective concentration (MEC) of the drug in the body.
  1. The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of:
  1. Effective renal blood flow.
  2. Rate of renal drug excretion.
  3. Intrinsic enzyme activity.
  4. Active renal secretion.
  5. Glomerular filtration rate.
  1. Which of the following has the greatest capacity to biotransform drugs?
  1. brain
  2. kidney
  3. liver
  4. lung
  5. skin
  1. Which of the following is most often responsible for chemical degradation?
  1. racemization
  2. photolysis
  3. hydrolysis
  4. decarboxylation
  5. oxidation.
  1. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?
  1. bioequivalency
  2. dissolution
  3. potency
  4. purity
  5. toxicity
  1. The pH of a buffer system can be calculated with the:
  1. Noyes-Whitney equation
  2. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
  3. Michaelis-Menten equation
  4. Young equation.
  5. Stokes equation
  1. The rate-limiting step in the bioavailability of a lipid-soluble drug formulated as an immediate-release compressed tablet is the rate of:
  1. Disintegration of the tablet and release of the drug.
  2. Dissolution of the drug.
  3. Transport of the drug molecules across the intestinal mucosal cells.
  4. Blood flow to the GIT
  5. Biotransformation, or metabolism, of the drug by the liver before systemic absorption occurs.
  1. Drugs that show nonlinear pharmacokinetics have which property?
  1. A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the administered dose increases.
  2. The elimination half-life increases as the administered dose increases.
  3. The area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC) increases in direct proportion to an increase in the administered dose.
  4. Both low and high doses follow first-order elimination kinetics.
  5. The steady-state drug concentration increase in direct proportion to the dosing rate.
  1. Which of the following drugs should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
  1. ampicillin
  2. dopamine
  3. cisplatin
  4. nitroglycerin
  5. bretylium tosylate
  1. A central vein, either subclavian or internal jugular, may be considered a suitable route for intravenous (IV) administration in which of the following situations?
  1. when an irritating drug is given
  2. when hypertonic drugs are given
  3. for long term therapy
  4. for administering dextrose 35% as parenteral nutrition.
  5. All of the above
  1. The absorption rate of a drug is most rapid when the drug is formulated as:
  1. controlled release drug
  2. a hard gelatin capsule
  3. a compressed tablet
  4. solution
  5. suspension
  1. Which of the following is an emulsifying agent?
  1. Span 80
  2. Tween 80
  3. Sodium lauryl sulfate
  4. Gum acacia
  5. All of the above
  1. Which of the following equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at increased temperature?
  1. Stokes equation
  2. Arrhenius equation
  3. Michaelis menten equation
  4. Fick’s equation
  5. Noyes whittney equation
  1. Bioavailability means?
  1. The measurement of the rate and extent of active drug that reaches the systemic circulation.
  2. The relationship between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and its systemic absorption.
  3. The movement of the drug into body tissues over time.
  4. Dissolution of the drug in the GIT
  5. All of the above.
  1. Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
  1. Fick’s law
  2. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
  3. Michaelis-menten equation
  4. Noyes-Whitney equation
  5. All of the above
  1. Certain factors may increase the risk of microbial contamination of a sterile product. Which of the following is not a risk factor?
  1. Very complex compounding steps
  2. Lengthy exposure of a critical site during compounding
  3. Using appropriate aseptic technique
  4. Batch compounding for multiple patients without preservatives
  5. Preparing a sterile product from nonsterile powders
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
  1. When working in a horizontal laminar flow workbench, arrange items in the hood such that when working, one’s hand never is between the HEPA filter and an object.
  2. When working in a horizontal laminar flow workbench, vials that are not being used should be stacked up along the side of the hood to increase workspace in the hood.
  3. 70% isopropyl alcohol is used to sterilize the laminar flow workbench before each shift.
  4. An object placed in the HLFW disturbs the airflow downstream of the object equal to two times the diameter of the object.
  5. Syringes and IV bags are placed in the hood in their protective overwrap.
  1. Operators in the buffer are must be properly gowned. Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. Operators gown because they shed particles and the non shedding gowns keep the operator sterile.
  2. Sterile gloves are used so that if the operator accidentally touches a critical site during compounding of the sterile product it will not become contaminated.
  3. Frequent sanitization with sterile 70% isopropyl alcohol is essential in order to keep your hands sterile during the compounding process.
  4. Non shedding garb and sterile gloves help to contain the particles shed from the operator.
  5. Operators must gown before working at the laminar flow workbench, but not before entering the buffer area.
  1. The process whereby the ribosome in the cytoplasm reads mRNA codons and matches them with the appropriate tRNAs (which in turn carry amino acids responsible for protein synthesis) is referred to as:
  1. transcription
  2. translation
  3. transformation
  4. transfection
  5. transduction
  1. An example of recombinant DNA-generated cytokine used for the management of acute relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is which of the following?
  1. Interferon beta 1b
  2. Aldesleukin (IL-2)
  3. Eptifibatide
  4. Bivalirudin
  5. Abciximab
  1. Alteplase is recombinant DNA protein of which of the following types?
  1. Hormone
  2. Enzyme
  3. Clotting factor
  4. Chemokine
  5. Cytokine
  1. Which of the following chimeric monoclonal antibody therapeutically used for inflammatory disease?
  1. Abciximab
  2. Infliximab
  3. Palivizumab
  4. Rituximab
  5. Trastuzumab
  1. The scientific discipline of using genome-wide approaches to understand the inherited basis of differences between individuals in the response to drugs best describes which of the following?
  1. Pharmacogenomics
  2. Functional genomics
  3. Comparative genomics
  4. Pharmacodynamics
  5. Molecular genetics
  1. “The use of recombinant DNA or RNA technology; direct DNA transfer technology; nucleic acid amplification technology; hybridoma technology; cell fusion; molecular modification of cellular receptors; or the application of cells, tissues, or their components such that their potential biological activity has been modified”. Is describes which of the following?
  1. Biology
  2. Biotechnology
  3. Biotherapy
  4. Bioinformatics
  5. Nanotechnology
  1. A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) always results in a change in which of the following?
  1. The nucleotide sequence in the genome.
  2. The nucleotide sequence of a codon
  3. The encoded amino acid of the codon
  4. The encoded amino acid of the codon, with no change in function of the encoded protein.
  5. The encoded amino acid of the codon, with a clinically relevant change in the function of the encoded protein.
  1. The solution that has higher levels of solutes than RBC, which lead to shrinking of the cells.
  1. Isotonic
  2. Hypertonic
  3. Hypotonic
  4. None of the above
  1. What is the certain pore size of the filter in applying filtration for sterilization?
  1. 0.5 microns
  2. 0.2 microns
  3. 0.3 microns
  4. 0.4 microns
  1. An important metabolic enzyme which has roles in metabolizing the opoiod drug codeine.
  1. CYP 34A
  2. CYP 2D6
  3. CYP1A2
  4. None of the above
  1. It is also know as tolerance.
  1. Desentsitization
  2. Sensitivity
  3. Desensitizer
  4. None of the above
  1. It is defined as computational technique to study the interaction of 2 or more molecules.
  1. molecular docking
  2. molecular locking
  3. molecules dock
  4. none of the above
  1. Rational drug design mean:
  1. Increase side effects, decrease safety and efficacy of drugs
  2. Decrease side effects, increase safety and efficacy of drugs
  3. Decrease side effects, increase safety and efficacy of drugs while increasing therapeutic specificity of drug.
  4. None of the above
  1. The equation that is used to calculate how many calories a patient needs while on TPN therapy.
  1. Harris Benedict equation
  2. Henderson Hasselbach equation
  3. Noyes
  4. Michaelis Menten equation
  1. The patient must counseled by a pharmacist when receiving this patch due to the serious adverse reactions such as respiratory depression and death.
  1. Nicotine patch
  2. Transdermal patch
  3. Birth control patch
  4. Fentanyl patch
  1. Drug taken orally / IV bolus is defined as:
  1. Absolute bioavailability
  2. Relative bioavailability
  3. Pharmacodynamics
  4. None of the above
  1. These isomers have different physicochemical properties and physical activity. They are not mirror images.
  1. Enantiomers
  2. Cis-trans isomers
  3. Conformational
  4. Epimers optical isomers
  1. They have physical and chemical properties except the rotations such as D(dextrorotatory) and L(levorotatory); they are isomers that are mirror images of one another; they have differences in potency, receptor fit, biological activity and transport mechanism.
  1. Enantiomers
  2. Cis-trans isomers
  3. Conformational
  4. Epimers optical isomers
  1. It is defined as lack of intrinsic activity produced by competitive and noncompetitive inhibition.
  1. Antagonist
  2. Pharmacological antagonism
  3. Partial antagonism
  4. Physiological antagonism
  1. Drugs act independently at different receptors, yield opposing action.
  1. Antagonist
  2. Pharmacological antagonism
  3. Partial antagonism
  4. Physiological antagonism
  1. An example of this antagonism is nalorphine for opiate receptor, this antagonism inhibits endogenous ligand from binding the receptor. It possess intrinsic activity.
  1. Antagonisy
  2. Pharmacological antagonism
  3. Parital antagonism
  4. Physiologica antagonism
  1. It occurs when one drug, lacking an effect of its own, increases the effect of another drug that is active. Ex: carbidopa blocks dopamine degradation and is given with dopamine. Carbidopa prolongs the half life of dopamine and duration of antiparkinsonism.
  1. addition
  2. synergism
  3. potentiation
  4. none of the above
  1. The ability of the drug to exists as optically active stereoisomers refers to which of the following:
  1. chirality
  2. empimers
  3. cistrans
  4. isomers
  1. It improves flow properties of drug powder blend before it is compressed. E.g., is colloidal silica.
  1. lubricant
  2. glidant
  3. surfactant
  4. cellulose
  1. Enteric coated drug product is an ex: of
  1. modified release dosage form
  2. extended release dosage form
  3. delayed release dosage form
  4. none of the above
  1. Vanishing cream is an ex: of:
  1. emulsion base
  2. absorption base
  3. oleaginous
  4. water soluble
  1. It is washable in water, example is hydrophilic ointment.
  1. water in oil emulsion
  2. oil in water emulsion
  3. both a and b
  4. none of the above
  1. It is the process that transfer the drug that is released from its dosage form into the blood.
  1. absorption
  2. distribution
  3. metabolism
  4. excretion
  1. The primary site of drug metabolism is:
  1. kidney
  2. liver
  3. renal
  4. fecal
  1. The rate constant for metabolism or excretion are independently of the initial drug concentration.
  1. second order kinetics
  2. first order kinetics
  3. third order kinetics
  4. non linear kinetics
  1. Anticodon (tRNA- a process of genetic information to synthesize protein)
  1. transformation
  2. transcription
  3. transduction
  4. translation
  1. An enzyme that seals single-stranded nicks between nucleotides and double stranded DNA.
  1. DNA polymerase
  2. DNA ligase
  3. Gene
  4. Genome
  1. It is used for treatment for anemia associated with chronic renal disease, zidovudine induced anemia, anemia due to chemotherapy and surgery patients.
  1. Epoetin alfa
  2. Darbapoetin alfa
  3. Filgrastim
  4. Sargramostism
  1. All of the following are Phase I prescription drug metabolism except:
  1. oxidation
  2. reduction
  3. hydrolysis
  4. acetylation
  1. Which of the following Phase II reactions leads to crystalluria and the reaction is catalyzed by N-acetyltransferase?
  1. Glucoronidation
  2. Sulfate
  3. Acetylation
  4. Glutathione
  1. Which of the following DMARDs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and used as standard therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
  1. etanercept
  2. methotrexate
  3. abatacept
  4. leflunomide
  1. All of the drugs posses anticholinergic effect except:
  1. diphenxylate/atropine
  2. disopyramide
  3. loratadine
  4. ibuprofen
  1. This herbal product is used for treatment of cold and wounds.
  1. Echinacea
  2. Black cohosh
  3. Ginger
  4. Valeria
  1. It occurs in sickle cell anemia. It is also called poikilocytosis.
  1. RBC size
  2. RBC shape
  3. WBC shape
  4. RBC indices
  1. It is produced primarily in liver and bones
  1. CK
  2. LDH
  3. ALP
  4. AST
  1. It indicate uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, also occur with starvation and zero or low carbohydrate diets.
  1. albuminuria
  2. proteinuria
  3. ketonuria
  4. glycosuria
  1. The rate of infusion formula is:
  1. Ri = 0.693/k
  2. Ri = Css x Vd x K
  3. Ri = Cp x Vd x K
  4. Ri = CssVd/K

 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

FPGEE Candidates who reside outside the USA, The  Method of Payment: Western union, Money order or cashier check in dollar, PayPal credit card or debit card.

PayPal method of Payment (the safest method of payment)  is also available internationally.

Don’t hesitate to email fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com if you have any questions. Add fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com to your Facebook and Skype.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Contact information:

FPGEE Course

Pharmacy Electives Tutoring Program

Nederland, TX, USA

Email: fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com

Skype: fpgee_lecturer@yahoo.com

Online tutoring is via Live Chat on Skype or email.

Lots of tips and updated fpgee notes and feedback are provided when you sign up.

Terms and Conditions:

Pharmacy Electives Tutoring Program will not issue refunds for E-Courses that have been purchased. However, you will have a credit and can use your payment to take the course later.

 

This review course is also available internationally.  Foreign Pharmacists from outside the USA are welcome to participate in the course.

Copyright FPGEE Intensive Review Course. All rights reserved. This course is protected by copyright. No part of it maybe reproduced in any matter or by any means without written permission from the authors & instructors.

FPGEE is NABP’s trademark!